I will write on some mathematics ideas. Basel Problem. I have found out solution angles to it.

I shall write about it.

The Basel problem was; what is

1+1/2²+1/3²+1/4²+ . . . . . equal to.

1/2² is 1²/2² , 1²/3² and so on. These are nothing but angles in a semicircle. Have you understood this point. i.e tan²theta.

So, therefore, pi squared term is really there. Because pi is circumference by diameter. Circle is a truth.

Now, I wrote about doubling and 1/4th stuff earlier.

1+1/4*2²+1/3²+1/4*4²+1/5²+ . . . . . . equals pi by √6 (not correct! Maybe rounding off! Maybe not!! Maybe desktop of 50 crores! Maybe not!) in the above equation.

This equation when squared(yes !!) is the Basel problem equation.

This means,

1+1/2²+1/3²+1/4²+ . . . . . equal to pi squared by 6.

(No 50 crores desktop needed. Recursive functions should be sufficient., I guess. I am a one line C program writer.)

Yoo !! Hoo !! I have understood why these things happen. Whether correct or not correct. It seems correct to some extent. But not fully. I need money to explain this. Rs.10 crores and I am yours and my explanations too.

Reason is 4/5 -3/4 is the Riemann Zeta function. And . . . . . . . . . . 4/5 and 3/4 are so close. Did you get it ?

If I keep the (n³+1)th term as negative then the result of above is indeed pi by √6. i.e 9th term, 28th term etc.

Similarly, in the series,

1+1/2+1/3+1/4+1/5+ . . . . . . dividing by 2 and subtracting at (n²+1)th place gives √6.

This finishes the topic.